In a sermon said to have been preached in 1998 that is printed in the Spring, 2009, issue of Northwest News, Keith Gomez wrote after citing Matthew 5:18: "Not only the spelling of every word will remain, but the singular and plural will remain" (p. 3).

Gomez wrote: "Many have tried to change the Book, but we have a Book that is correct already. Every word in the Bible is God-breathed, even the spelling and the singular and plural forms of each word" (p. 3).


Would or does Keith Gomez claim that the number [whether singular or plural] of every noun or pronoun in the KJV is the same as the number of every noun or pronoun in the original language texts of the Scriptures?

Would or does Keith Gomez claim that the number [whether singular or plural] of every noun or pronoun in the 1611 edition of the KJV is the same as their number in present editions of the KJV?

Isn't that verse referencing the law? Or am I reading it incorrectly?

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All things presented in the above message are MHO. Thus, even though they probably are right, you have the right to respectfully disagree with me.