Of course, "all conceivable men" is not a phrase found in Scripture, so your point is moot. Are you a universalist? Do you believe that Christ's death for all resulted in all men without exception dying (2 Corinthians 5:14? Are you a universalist (cf. Romans 6:8)? Do you believe the reprobate are freely given all things (Romans 8:32)? You think God gives regeneration, faith, and any other conditions by which the provision of the atonement is secured to all men without exception? Are you a universalist?
You are an expert at turning things around. You would have made a great Gnostic leader. "All conceivable men" does not have to be in the scriptures in order for the Greek to refer to it in the texts. But what is amazing is that you make this claim,when Calvinists consistently claim that is refers to "World of the elect". This is adding to the scriptures! To say "All conceivable men" is not, since this is a common understand of the term. Did Jesus die for the earth? Did He die for plants, animals, mountains, and everything else He created? No! He died for Men! But world refers to a whole, NOT a part. Are you even reading what I write? I have stated that I am not a universalist and why. Believing in universal atonement does not equal universalism!
This seems like teaching college level math to a 1st grade kid. I clearly exlain things, but you go right back to the same empty claims and accusations. You try to limit the work of Christ to an elect, when the scriptures clearly make it for all, Then you try to use a claim of universalism against me because you are not seeing what I am saying. So you seem to think that "us" in scripture limits atonement and the promises of God only to Christians, when such words only show that it is only "us" who have presently received them and can walk in them. The world cannot because they have not come to Christ in repentance - NOT because Christ did not die for them! And NOT because they cannot repent and receive Christ! Only a Calvinist mind in bondage to a system of false theology can do such. You need deliverance so you can see.
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Or will you bite the bullet and admit those passages cannot refer to all men without exception, and therefore admit Christ did not die so that all men without exception would be saved?
I would never deceive myself in such a way to claim these things! I prefer the truth, thank you very much! And it is NOT so that all men WOULD BE SAVED, but so that they COULD BE SAVED! It is a provision and NOT a payment. Payment is something that is done and completed, while provision is something that is provided in completion, but must be received. The majority will not receive and will by their own choice be damned in eternity, because they abode in their sins instead of having them taken away.
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Seriously, have you not yet read the thread I started on the atonement to which I have linked you several times? Are you going to continually misrepresent Calvinism? Am I going to have to continue to embarrass you? Calvinism affirms the atonement is sufficient for all, efficient only for the elect. This is by God's design. The power is not inherently limited, as it is with Arminians - after all, you believe man chooses autonomously to believe, meaning the Father couldn't have known when He planned to send His Son to die whether or not anyone would believe! Rather, Calvinists limit the scope of the atonement, saying Christ obtained eternal redemption only for those whom He died for, those who the Father freely gives all things (which would imply, even by your own definition of "all," the desire to come to faith).
Sorry, but you have not embarrassed me. You don't seem to get the fact that your ideas are not in line with what all Calvinists teach. Although I cannot tell you all that you believe, I am well aware of what many others believe. Most of my statements are in general, based on what the majority claim. I have argued with literally hungreds of Calvinists over the years. Probably more years than you are in age. So I know what they believe. If you disagree with them, that is fine. But this most likely will make you inconsistent with what others even teach. First is the idea of limited atonement. You cannot have Christ dying for all men as you just said and atonement only being for the elect! This is very inconsistent and theological hogwash. Atonement CANNOT be sufficient for all if all cannot receive it. You must make up your own dictionary to explain these things. If you have a debt of $10,000 and I give you $12,000 - then you have suffient funds to actually take care of you bills. But If I say I have all the money for you, but I never actually let you have it, then this is not sufficiency at all! Suffient means, "Enough to meet the needs of a situation". Calvinism just makes it a tease and a lie! This is like saying, I do not have sufficient money to pay my debts, but hey, Bill Gates does! But what good does that do me? None at all! Jesus would not die for all if He had no intention for providing a truely sufficient Atonement for all. So I will agree that Atonement is sufficient for all! But in provision - NOT payment for sins! And it is efficient only to those who receive Him and become children of God by faith, via free will. Why complicate the simple gospel? Yet many have to in order to fit their twisted doctrines.
You are denying that God will freely give all things to those for whom Christ died, including the sufficient desire necessary for one to will to come to Christ?
No, I am denying Calvinism's lying doctrines of devils. You are denying God His sovereign will to allow men free will in coming to Him. As stated, it is all a work of God's grace. So the only thing denied of God is in teaching that His Work on the cross is no capable of drawing men without having to choose them ahead of time.
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LOL! Yes it does! Why would the unbelief of the Jews be for this reason if the verse which follows wasn’t the reason??? And how would “no one can come to me unless the Father has enabled him” be relevant to the unbelief of the Jews unless the Father didn’t enable those Jews to believe??? Der!
God does not allow men to come to Him without faith and by what they see in signs. This is not disallowing men to come to Him by election or lack of it!!! This was the point that seem to continuously miss. Enablement comes thru the gospel. IS your gospel so powerless that it cannot be used by God to draw upon men. And in addition the Holy Spirit will draw men. And this is still not enough for you. The simple fact of hunger within a man should be enough when looked at carefully, but nothing will do when the mind is tainted by Calvinism. You can only think they way that Calvinistic theology has trained you to think.
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Of course, God could simply enable them to not desire a sign…
Of course He "could". But He won't do such, because scripture is clear that they must have faith - which is something "we" must do. It is not a work that can merit salvation, but is a simple decision to act on the gospel and grace supplied to us. Many want a sign because they want their sin and are not hungry. So they will only believe in what they can see - until they are emptied of the world and self efforts. This is when most turn to Christ. And this is the only way the desire for a sign can be removed.
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Where did Paul say those with whom he was speaking were of the same group as those Christ spoke to in John 6? You funny.
Let's get serious now! This was not long after Christ died. The religious leaders had not changed much in this time. Paul went to religious leaders daily and found all he could of them, and knew many of them from years before his own conversion. That is one of the main reasons he would have been there. He never wrote them off as non-elect and unable to come to the Father. You are reading into the context things that are not there.
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Yes! No one can come unless the Father draws, and the Father [/B]did not [/B]draw them as evidenced by verses 64-65, so yes, He did say that.
Reading into it again! This is absolute truth that I have never denied, but rather confirmed in everything I have said. But not drawing doe not say that they are not chosen. It is only saying that as long as they abide in the state of mind they are in then they cannot come unto the Father. It IS NOT a statement of non-election!
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Where is it indicated the Father later drew them? Huh? And read the whole of John 6:44. Those who are drawn will be raised the last day. Hello? Are you a universalist?
Those drawn are those who are hungry and willing to receive. All who "ARE" drawn will be the only ones resurrected on the last day! All others CAN be drawn, but they simply will not be drawn as long as they choose to abide in their sin. Why must you complicate the simplest truth? Hello back? Are you a Gnostic?
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Again, where does Theophilus write how one comes to desire such? Oh, nowhere? Then why are you drawing rash conclusions? Oh, because you can’t deal with Scripture?
No he’s not. He says if they desire to come then they can, but that does not mean all men can desire. You mistake this just as you and SoC do Revelation 22:17 and John 3:16. “Does” and “can” are not equivalent terms. That men who desire do come does not mean all men without exception can come.
Let's look once more:
"For as man, disobeying, drew death upon himself; so, obeying the will of God, he who desires is able to procure for himself life everlasting".
So who is he talking about here? MAN! Who disobeyed God and drew death upon himslef? MAN! Then who is the "he" that can desire? MAN! Their is NO limitation here! You cannot make this to talk about those whom God causes to desire (Except thru the sending of the gospel and Holy Spirit to draw all men), as it clearly speaks of the sinful state of ALL men, and not just some. It speaks of man;s personal choice here so that he can procure "for himself everlasting life".
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Nope, you are reading into the text what you want to see…but don’t.
Not even close. You have to hope such. I have just explain otherwise, but will wait to see how you twist that around.
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I didn’t say he did. I can let Theophilus speak for himself. And he doesn’t say one way or the other. It’s not I who tried to use this quote as a support for my position, you did. The onus is on you to show the quote cannot be understood another way.
You obviously cannot let him speak for himself! You have twisted it all around when it is simple language. You have learned this art from twisting scripture. But it only proves how desperately you need to be right. Forget truth. Lets just win a debate in our own mind and all is good. I have shown the obvious. But no matter how clear the language, you WILL twist it. You have to!
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I accuse you of stupidity and intellectual dishonesty. Theopholis said nothing that I disagree with.
Thats okay. You are entitled to your opinion. Jesus let the Pharasee's say what they wanted to also.
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Whether or not fallen men necessarily choose to do evil because they only desire evil as unregenerates is not Theophilus’ primary point. He is combating Manichaeism. You seemingly have not an honest bone in your body, or you would admit nothing he says is inconsistent with Calvinism. Quote what he writes that is inconsistent with Calvinism or just shut up and sit down.
You cannot be serious! I think you are more confused than I thought. When you grow up give me a call and we can talk. You have to make this true in your own mind. But the fact is that they did not agree. This is not all he wrote on the issue, and others wrote of the same and were very clear on the issue. Augustinianism is far different! Time to open the books and look a bit harder. But tru without the Calvinist glasses that want to turn everything around.
Dr. White probably doesn't debate Lavender because he has better things to do, lie engage in debate with Muslims and Mormons and Catholics and Arminians who fairly represent his position. I doubt he wants to deal with another Dave Hunt, and I really doubt he's scared of this one guy who has been responded to by numerous others.
Augustine was not a Gnostic, you have yet to substantiate that. For some reason, you think proving the ECFs were in unity on all matters soteric will somehow convince me they are a rule of faith. But even before I refuted your appeals, there was no reason for me to entertain you on these grounds. I just do it because I like to show that you have no idea what you're talking about, even on subjects you bring up. Your link of Pelagius was worse than I could have caricatured. You say the church was in unison in doctrine, but did they even agree on the canon? No. Did they agree that faith alone was the instrument of salvation? No. Did they agree perseverance was necessary? No. Did they agree who had apostolic succession? No. In fact, the real early church - the apostles! - had to deal with Judaizers and Docetists and false prophets and... you get the picture. That you think after the apostles disappeared the church all got their act together is humorous, especially as you regard Pelagius (of all people, Pelagius! LOL!) as representative of the ECFs when the fact is he lost (cf. the Council of Orange, Pelagius' condemnation, etc. and etc.).
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Originally Posted by PL
"All conceivable men" does not have to be in the scriptures in order for the Greek to refer to it in the texts.
Well, not if you read a-contextually, as you so obviously do.
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Originally Posted by PL
But what is amazing is that you make this claim,when Calvinists consistently claim that is refers to "World of the elect".
Wait wait wait. So when I say "all conceivable men" is not in Scripture, you blow a gasket, but you condemn Calvinists for being consistent in their appeal to context? Who is Jesus not praying for in John 17? All men without exception? Lol. Who does Jesus give life to in John 6:33? All men without exception? Are you a universalist? Hello? Do you see the necessity of taking into account what the context says?
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Originally Posted by PL
I have stated that I am not a universalist and why. Believing in universal atonement does not equal universalism!
So you believe Christ died for everyone. Does God fail to give all people all things? as Paul wrong when he said those for who Christ died also die, and those who die shall be raised with Christ as well? That is why I think you are a universalist, but you aren't answering my questions directly.
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Originally Posted by PL
And it is NOT so that all men WOULD BE SAVED, but so that they COULD BE SAVED!
Matthew 1:21. Does that look like a mere possibility to you? Really? Romans 8:32. God fails to give us all things, viz. the desire to come to Him? Really? God enables all people to believe? Really?
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Originally Posted by Knight
What does John 10:26 say? Is unbelief the reason we are not being His sheep or is not being His sheep the reason they did not unbelief?
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Originally Posted by PL
Did He say "Some of you cannot believe"?
Yes! No one can come unless the Father draws, and the Father [/B]did not [/B]draw them as evidenced by verses 64-65, so yes, He did say that.
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Originally Posted by PL
your ideas are not in line with what all Calvinists teach.
Source? Or can I expect you to welch out here too?
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Originally Posted by PL
You cannot have Christ dying for all men as you just said
I didn't say Christ died for all men. To say Christ laid a provision for all men without and to say Christ intended to save all men without exception (died for them) are not equivalent statements. You are simply ignorant.
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Originally Posted by PL
Atonement CANNOT be sufficient for all if all cannot receive it.
Non sequitur. That not all can receive it (not all have access to the instrumental cause of justification) does not mean it is an insufficient provision (grounds of justification). You understand the difference between the instrumental cause of justification and the ground of justification, don't you?
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Originally Posted by PL
You must make up your own dictionary to explain these things. If you have a debt of $10,000 and I give you $12,000 - then you have suffient funds to actually take care of you bills.
The atonement is penal, not pecuniary. Your analogy is fail. Besides, God doesn't "give" us the money, we have to take it (faith). That not all can come to faith does not mean the provision is nonexistent. That's simply fallacious reasoning.
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Originally Posted by PL
Jesus would not die for all if He had no intention for providing a truely sufficient Atonement for all.
But I don't deny the provision of the atonement is sufficient, so your point is moot. I also don't deny the provision is not the payment. That's actually why your analogy is wrong: because you conflate a provision with a purchase. I don't claim Jesus purchased atonement for all (which would include the condition of reception, faith, in the all things God gives those for whom Christ died). I claim Jesus laid a provision for such that if all men without exception had faith, the atonement would cover every man's sin.
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Originally Posted by PL
Why complicate the simple gospel?
Sir, you have yet to even cite Scripture. Your checks are bouncing because your tush can't cash them
No, I am denying Calvinism's lying doctrines of devils. You are denying God His sovereign will to allow men free will in coming to Him.
Where do you find such a doctrine? Not in Romans 8:32! That's monergism, baby!
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Originally Posted by PL
Enablement comes thru the gospel.
So why didn't Jesus tell the Jews in John 6 the gospel? If you say He did, why do you say they couldn't come?
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Originally Posted by PL
IS your gospel so powerless that it cannot be used by God to draw upon men.
This doesn't even make sense. Take a walk to clear your head.
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Originally Posted by PL
Of course He "could". But He won't do such, because scripture is clear that they must have faith - which is something "we" must do.
But whether or not we come to faith is predicated on whether or not we desire to do so. So why doesn't God give us the desire to do so? Doesn't He give us all things?
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Originally Posted by PL
It is not a work that can merit salvation
Then you disagree with Pelagius
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Originally Posted by PL
Let's get serious now! This was not long after Christ died. The religious leaders had not changed much in this time. Paul went to religious leaders daily and found all he could of them, and knew many of them from years before his own conversion. That is one of the main reasons he would have been there. He never wrote them off as non-elect and unable to come to the Father. You are reading into the context things that are not there.
What have I read into the context? You are the one inferring they are the same leaders, when that is nowhere found in the Acts record. If it is, give me a verse. Put up or shut up.
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Originally Posted by PL
But not drawing doe not say that they are not chosen. It is only saying that as long as they abide in the state of mind they are in then they cannot come unto the Father. It IS NOT a statement of non-election!
So you believe they can come while unregenerates? Will you address ROmans 8:7-9, then? Finally?
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Originally Posted by PL
Those drawn are those who are hungry and willing to receive. All who "ARE" drawn will be the only ones resurrected on the last day!
Where did they receive such a hunger? Hm? 1 Corinthians 4:7 ring a bell? But wait! Why don't all hunger, then, if not because not all men are given their desire?
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Originally Posted by PL
"For as man, disobeying, drew death upon himself; so, obeying the will of God, he who desires is able to procure for himself life everlasting".
So who is he talking about here? MAN! Who disobeyed God and drew death upon himslef? MAN! Then who is the "he" that can desire? MAN!
Agreed! But nowhere in the text does it state that man effects his own desires! You have read that into the passage.
The rest of this is just nonsensical garbage like "you just want to win" and "grow up" and general boo hoo-ing, and as it's too pathetic for me to dignify with a response, later
White probably doesn't debate Lavender because he has better things to do, lie engage in debate with Muslims and Mormons and Catholics and Arminians who fairly represent his position. I doubt he wants to deal with another Dave Hunt, and I really doubt he's scared of this one guy who has been responded to by numerous others.
If he was not afraid, then he would debate a guy who has written an indepth book against his own writing, and has a huge amount of support from other men of great credibility. These other men who have responded mainly confront his honorary degree, which actually says a lot of a persons knowledge in itself. But they have to use it against him. The man is 76 years old and has spent countless hours above and beyond what any school will require for a degree. He has also given very good responses to those who have attempted to confront his so-called error, which blow their ideas away. A man of such honor and powerful evidence deserves a response. Especially since White is the one making the claims in his own book. Malcolm has given evidence from several Greek scholars to prove his own points. It is on these issues that White refuses to respond. I do not beleive he can give an honest answer to Malcolm, and therefore will not debate or even talk to him.
Augustine was not a Gnostic, you have yet to substantiate that. For some reason, you think proving the ECFs were in unity on all matters soteric will somehow convince me they are a rule of faith. But even before I refuted your appeals, there was no reason for me to entertain you on these grounds. I just do it because I like to show that you have no idea what you're talking about, even on subjects you bring up.
I never said Augustine was a Gnostic. I said he was a Catholic. But he was afffected by Gnostic teachings, which not only show in his own teachings, but history shows that the Church was infected with pagan and Gnostic beliefs in the early 4th century. You are very foolish to not even consider Early Church teachings that were never disputed within the Church, and of whom were taught by the Apostles themselves. This is convenient for you to reject them, but not convenient for truth sake. We cannot determine truth by the early Church alone, but they do serve as historical evidence of truth. To reject this as evidence is pure and purposeful ignorance. Your refutations were empty and vain, a desperate stretch in order to deceive yourself. You have to convince yourself that I do not know what I am talking about so your can deceive yourself in ignorance. You have to read into history like you do the scriptures. Do you disagree with your instructers? Or are they they rule of faith for you?
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Your link of Pelagius was worse than I could have caricatured.
And I already wrote back and even apologized for that link, because it was not the one I thought it was. I disagreed with many claims on that site.
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You say the church was in unison in doctrine, but did they even agree on the canon?
Obviously the Canon did not exist yet. But they did have the scriptures and they did agree on all of them. The only writings they used that were not a part of the canon later were writings that were in complete agreement with the scriptures and taught nothing different. So they had the scriptures in completion and were indeed in complete agreement. Your point here has no affect on anything.
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Did they agree that faith alone was the instrument of salvation?
This depends on exactly what you mean. But they did beleive faith was the agent by which men came to salvation and that all men were capable of having faith via free will. You have addressed Theopholis, but not Justin, Tertullian, and many others who claim the same. You have a lot more twisting to do.
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Did they agree perseverance was necessary? No.
They certainly did!
Did they agree who had apostolic succession? No.
Yes they did!
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In fact, the real early church - the apostles! - had to deal with Judaizers and Docetists and false prophets and... you get the picture. That you think after the apostles disappeared the church all got their act together is humorous, especially as you regard Pelagius (of all people, Pelagius! LOL!) as representative of the ECFs when the fact is he lost (cf. the Council of Orange, Pelagius' condemnation, etc. and etc.).
You are amazing! You miss points, turn around my claims and statments to mean something completely different, and then stand on a straw pedistal thinking you have won a victory. It is evident in the scriptures and in history that the Apostles and the Church had many heresies to deal with. But they Church was not infected by these things doctrinally. They fought against them continuously. Even in the event of problems, the Church always came out vistoriuos in the end. Even the 7 Churches in Revelation were not confronted for false teachings in doctrine. It was other issues they dealt with. Wherever you have people you are going to have problems to deal with. But doctrine can still remain true thru it all, as it did with the Churches. If these Churches did have disagreements, then certainly it would have been recorded. But the opposite is recorded many times.
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Wait wait wait. So when I say "all conceivable men" is not in Scripture, you blow a gasket, but you condemn Calvinists for being consistent in their appeal to context? Who is Jesus not praying for in John 17? All men without exception? Lol. Who does Jesus give life to in John 6:33? All men without exception? Are you a universalist? Hello? Do you see the necessity of taking into account what the context says?
I saw this coming, which is why I already dealt with it in my last post. You seem to read what you want and ignore the rest. Go back and read again.
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The atonement is penal, not pecuniary. Your analogy is fail. Besides, God doesn't "give" us the money, we have to take it (faith). That not all can come to faith does not mean the provision is nonexistent. That's simply fallacious reasoning.
Wrong! Nowere in Leviticus does atonement indicate anything penal! I doubt you have read from my site on atonement, which shows this impossiblity. And this is the faulty foundation on which Calvinism rests. A provision is not a true provision if one cannot reviece it.
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But I don't deny the provision of the atonement is sufficient, so your point is moot. I also don't deny the provision is not the payment. That's actually why your analogy is wrong: because you conflate a provision with a purchase. I don't claim Jesus purchased atonement for all (which would include the condition of reception, faith, in the all things God gives those for whom Christ died). I claim Jesus laid a provision for such that if all men without exception had faith, the atonement would cover every man's sin.
In a way you do deny it. But I think their is some agreement here as well. Which IS different from what most Calvinists will agrue! I know you want to beleive I am just stupid. But I know what I believe and what others have argued as their own beliefs. And this is why I state what I do. Some is on the assumption that you beleive as others. But then you satte differently and claim that all Calvinists believe that way. This is not true! But even though you disagree with them, this still does not make you right. But going on the agreement that atonement is a provision for all men, that leaves us with the issue of faith. Who can have faith? You want to assume that if all have faith that this somehow equals universalism. First, not all men have faith. I never stated such a think. I only said that all men "CAN HAVE" faith, and ONLY if they will hunger. Then that leaves us with the idea of where hunger comes from. You say it comes from God in elect. If election is true, then man cannot truly have provision for his sins. Provision is something that you CAN receice, NOT something you cannot receive. Hunger comes from within a man, just as every man gets hungry physically on his own, every man can become hungry naturally in different times in life. The question then is, what will they fill themselves with? If they hear the gospel, then they have to make a choice to eat of what God offers or return to the world to eat. God created a gospel and atonement that could reach into each man that will choose Him when they do hunger. And those who hunger for righteousness shall be filled. Althoug men cannot be righteous according to God's standards, they can desire it. Especially once they are so low after seeking on their own in the world. So although atonement is universal, salvation never will be. This is because many men will not choose the right path. Provision is made for them, but they simply refuse it. And by this choice they will be judged.
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Sir, you have yet to even cite Scripture. Your checks are bouncing because your tush can't cash them
I have given scripture! You seem to ignore them. But I can give plenty! I have a book I wrote on these issues that are full of them, along with several more studies in the scriptures. Because they are so many I have also sent a few links to my own site. These posts are so long, I am already spending more time than I should be on them and will have to slow down. But anything you want just ask and I will give it. But I am sure that even though you think I have not given scriptures, you are aware of many of them and already have a twist for them, as most do. Scripture lashing goes in circles. So I have gone a different direction this time around. But don't you think for a minute that I cannot give scripture!
Where do you find such a doctrine? Not in Romans 8:32! That's monergism, baby!
YOu amazingly seem to think that Romans 8:32 proves something in your favor. It doesn't! This is not a limitation to us only. Otherwise you would have to exclude those who are yet to come to Christ, since they are not yet a part of "us". The promises of God can only be given to those who are presently in Christ, which at this time is only "us". The fact that He gave His Son for us doed not mean that he has not given Him for others. If this is not your point, then what is it? There is no Monergism in this scripture! You have to read it into it.
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So why didn't Jesus tell the Jews in John 6 the gospel? If you say He did, why do you say they couldn't come?
God will not draw upon a hard heart. But this does not mean that such a heart will always be hard. This is why many do not get saved immediately upon hearing the gospel. It takes some many years of life and even hardships before repenting and coming to Christ. Jesus knew the hearts of these men ahead of time. The gospel was not yet offered in completion to any man. Not even the Apostles knew the gospel yet! This was something that was yet to come. It was after the resurrection that the gospel would be preach - which would then include these men that could not turn to grace atthat time. it was then that Paul would return to them and try to convince them.
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But whether or not we come to faith is predicated on whether or not we desire to do so. So why doesn't God give us the desire to do so? Doesn't He give us all things?
From the beginning men had been given the ability to makes decisions, both good and bad. At the fall men received a gift from the fruit of the tree they were not prepared to receive. yet it did give the ability to know good and evil. So all men have the ability to desire good - especially for their own lives. The idea of this not being true would be foolish and unbelieveable. So when the gospel is presented, there is the ability to recognise it as good, and thus receive it. Especially when there is a testamony of such power and grace, as we are instructed to share as we spread the good news to the world. Why call it good news if a man cannot even see it as such? Man works with the desires of men, and by it draws upon them.
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Then you disagree with Pelagius
According to the Augustinian accusation of Pelagius, yes I disagree with him. But according to Pelagius own confession of what he believed, then no. Man can do righteousness, but just not unto salvation. He can never be good enough. Pelagius' argument was against the sinning religion that people were getting thru the teachings of Augustine. He saw unrighteousnes in Christians and was grieved deeply. They taught that man was born a sinner and could not keep from sinning. So Pelagius confronted this with the teaching that man could indeed live a righteous and holy life apart from sin. Not that man would never ever commit a sin again! But that he could live completely about any control of sin and sinful habits. Augustine took his teaching and made it some it was not, just as you try to do to me. And I am sure that if I was not around to defend myself and you were to write an article on what I believe, you would call be a universalist and misrepresent many things I have said. This happens almost every time in debates, as it did in history as well. Augustine and Jerome were no different, especially since that hated the fact that Pelagius opposed their teachings and made them look bad. Read your history again and you may see this if you open your eyes. Why trust a Catholic during corrupt times in the Church? At least Pelagius came out from among them.
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What have I read into the context? You are the one inferring they are the same leaders, when that is nowhere found in the Acts record. If it is, give me a verse. Put up or shut up.
You have assumed by the fact that they could not be drawn at that time that they would never be drawn. But the gospel had not yet been preached. Teh Holy Spirit had not yet been sent into the world. The Apostles had not yet been aointed to preach the truth in the gospel. The only fact in the passage was that God has to draw or they cannot come. it does not say that they will never be able to come because God has not chosen them. This is what is read into it.
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So you believe they can come while unregenerates? Will you address ROmans 8:7-9, then? Finally?
I HAVE already addressed Romans 8;7-9! This speaks of the carnal mind, not just the unregenerate. When a man hears the gospel and he is at a point of humger, his mind is changed by the grace of the gospel - giving knowledge of grace and hope of salvation. A carnal mind cannot please God. It does not say that a carnal mind cannot be changed, transformed, and saved. You again read into it things that are not there. Although I have not yet had time to post a lot of scripture, this is because I have been dealing much which your reading into scriptures, adding to them things that are not there, etc. No carnal mind can please God! This is why we need the work of Christ and to hear all He did for us so we can repent and be transformed. Nothing here states that a carnal minded person cannot be saved. After all, we were all carnally minded before Christ - and many are carnally minded even after Christ.
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Where did they receive such a hunger? Hm? ring a bell? But wait! Why don't all hunger, then, if not because not all men are given their desire?
First, this is not speaking of hunger. It is speaking of anything that we might boast in. Even sinners have no reason to boast. Everything comes from God and He owns it all. Bill Gates billions belong to God and come from Him. Knowledge and wisdom come from God. Talents and abilities are a result of His creation and gifts given to all men. This is not limited to Christians only. Our hunger is a part of God's creation in every man. We have nnothing at all to boast in, except in God and His grace! This does not in any way teach that hunger is not linked to man's choice, but only that every man WILL hunger eventually. Then they must choose what they will eat of. Many make the wrong choice. All DO hunger! But not all the time. Only at certain times in life. Did we always hunger before Christ? Do we always hunger for physical food? No! When we do hunger we have to decide what we want to eat. Then we are not longer hungry, being filled. Many are filled with junk and not hungry as long as they keep doing so. Some that do such get tired of it all and then hear the gospel at the right time, or remember hearing it and have a seed remaining with them.
Romans 8:31 What, then, shall we say in response to this? If God is for us, who can be against us?
32 He who did not spare his own Son, but gave him up for us all—how will he not also, along with him, graciously give us all things?
33 Who will bring any charge against God's elect? It is God who justifies.
34 Who is he that condemns? Christ Jesus, who died—more than that, who was raised to life—is at the right hand of God and is also interceding for us
Wow! So Jesus intercedes for all men without exception? Moron.
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Originally Posted by PL
Otherwise you would have to exclude those who are yet to come to Christ, since they are not yet a part of "us".
Exclude them from what? No one can say that God will not freely give the elect all things, because He gave up His Son for them! If He gave up His Son, He's obviously going to do whatever necessary to bring us for whom His Son died to Him. When we come to Him - and we will come to Him - no one can lay a charge against us, for God justifies. Because He was for us, no charge will be able to be laid against us, as His Son will intercede for them. This is very simple. What doesn't make sense to you?
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Originally Posted by PL
The promises of God can only be given to those who are presently in Christ
Where is regeneration referred to as a promise of God? Where in Romans 8:32 refer to the promises of God?
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Originally Posted by PL
God will not draw upon a hard heart.
He simply makes a new one (Ezekiel 36:26-27). You never responded to my exegesis of that verse.
The preaching of the gospel of Christ is a necessary but insufficient condition for salvation. It's necessary because we must have an object of faith, it's insufficient in that the preaching does not enable the mind of the flesh to submit to or please God. Only when one is in the Spirit via regeneration can and will that happen.
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Originally Posted by PL
At the fall men received a gift from the fruit of the tree they were not prepared to receive. yet it did give the ability to know good and evil.
Which does not imply an ability to do good or evil. You have yet to show a passage in which man can do good prior to regeneration. You have yet to deal with Romans 8:7-9, 1 John 5:1, 1 Peter 1:3, &c.
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Originally Posted by PL
According to the Augustinian accusation of Pelagius, yes I disagree with him. But according to Pelagius own confession of what he believed, then no.
Again I must ask that you give me even one instance wherein Augustine, who quoted Pelagius ver batim in most of his works, misrepresented him. Answer the call or silence your tongue against the saint.
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Originally Posted by PL
Man can do righteousness, but just not unto salvation.
What do you think righteousness is that unregenerate men can do it?
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Originally Posted by PL
They taught that man was born a sinner
Man is born in sin (Romans 5:12-19). No one taught man was born having personally sinned. Prove otherwise.
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Originally Posted by PL
...and could not keep from sinning.
I thought the whole church was unified, except Augustine?
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Originally Posted by PL
Pelagius confronted this with the teaching that man could indeed live a righteous and holy life apart from sin.
Without extrinsic grace!
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Originally Posted by PL
I am sure that if I was not around to defend myself and you were to write an article on what I believe, you would call be a universalist and misrepresent many things I have said.
You claim I do that anyways, you buffoon. The fact is, you cannot explain how God can give us all things such that it is consistent with your view of a weak, impotent God who woos and fails more often than He succeeds persuading people to come to Him. Good grief.
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Originally Posted by PL
Read your history again and you may see this if you open your eyes. Why trust a Catholic during corrupt times in the Church? At least Pelagius came out from among them.
You seem to be confuting modern Catholicism with that of the early church. Catholic means "universal." If not, of course Augustine was a part of the universal church. Of course Pelagius was not. But if you actually mean Augustine was a modern Catholic - a modern Catholic who believed in Total Depravity, Irresistible Grace, Limited Atonement, and Unconditional Election (do you know of such a Catholic?) - then how much more is Pelagius a Catholic? He said we were saved by our merits! With regards to the functions of the will, he said we are saved by our will and action - apart from prerequisite grace to either of these functions - according to the capacity of man with which he was born (which is said to have been caused by grace). In essence, he said the ability to do good or bad was gracious, the choosing of good or bad was not of grace. Mix in the fact he denied original sin tainted our nature, and hello! That's salvation by works. That's worse than modern Catholic dogma.
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Originally Posted by PL
The only fact in the passage was that God has to draw or they cannot come. it does not say that they will never be able to come because God has not chosen them. This is what is read into it.
Straw man. I never said they would never be able to come (future tense), I said that could not come (present tense) because they were not presently drawn. If you want to assert they were later drawn, show men. Until then, I will take this passage and John 10:26 to support my contention that only the sheep are enabled to believe. Being a sheep (elect) precedes belief.
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Originally Posted by PL
I HAVE already addressed Romans 8;7-9!
You just copied what I've already responded to. I repeat:
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Originally Posted by Knight
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Originally Posted by PL
Romans 8:7 says "Because the carnal mind is enmity against God". You conveniently use a version that says "Sinful man".
Mind of the flesh, actually. One is either in this mindset or in the mindset of the Spirit (where is the third option?). Only those who are indwelled by the Spirit live according to the mind of the spirit (verse 9). hence, those who are not indwelled live according to the flesh, which consequently means verses 7-8 apply to all unregenerates. That you think the unregenerate can please God, submit to Him, and not be hostile to Him, then, is a problem only solvable by accepting regeneration precedes these incapacities.
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Originally Posted by PL
True righteousness in Christ is defined by a lifestyle of righteousness, NOT just a few righteous deeds - which sinners are capable of.
Then again I will ask what is the point of regeneration, as we can do all these deeds without a new nature? I have already explained why Romans 8:7-9 kills your interpretation.
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Originally Posted by PL
First, this is not speaking of hunger. It is speaking of anything that we might boast in.
So we cannot boast in autonomous desire? Why not? After all, God didn't cause it, we did. Right? Hm?
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Originally Posted by PL
Everything comes from God and He owns it all.
Tut! You just said we aren't given hunger.
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Originally Posted by PL
Talents and abilities are a result of His creation and gifts given to all men.
This is rank Pelagianism. You think God graces our capacity but not our will or workings. You might have fooled someone who has never read Pelagius, but you can't fool me.
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Originally Posted by PL
every man WILL hunger eventually.
Where is your support??? Close Pelagius and pick up your Bible!
If he was not afraid, then he would debate a guy who has written an indepth book against his own writing
His book is not in depth, the links I provided show that. Besides, Hreb has written books against my posts. That doesn't any more incline me to respond to his stupidity than it would if he wrote 2 sentences. White probably doesn't want to give this guy credibility he doesn't deserve. He showed Lavender was wrong once, why do it over and over again? Again, Dr. White has better things to do. Do you have any inkling of the amount of time he spends learning Arabic, hosting a radio program, being a pastor, teaching at a college, and traveling to debate KJVOs, atheists, Muslims, Catholics, Arminians, JWs, and Mormons? And he's obligated to respond to this nobody? Please.
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Originally Posted by PL
Lavender has a huge amount of support from other men of great credibility.
Enlighten me! Don't just make assertions, back them up.
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Originally Posted by PL
But he was afffected by Gnostic teachings
Which he renounced. Show me a work of his that teaches anything remotely related to Gnosticism. Come on! Are you going to answer any of these challenges?
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Originally Posted by PL
You are very foolish to not even consider Early Church teachings that were never disputed within the Church
Lol. Like the humanity of Christ, Trinity, original sin, canon, justification by works... yeah, the Early Church was much more reliable than we are.
This is why you need to change your criterion of truth from man's word to God's word. Stop focusing so much on the former as your pillar of truth.
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Originally Posted by PL
they do serve as historical evidence of truth. To reject this as evidence is pure and purposeful ignorance.
What historical evidence? You have yet to show any of it! Moron!
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Originally Posted by PL
Do you disagree with your instructers? Or are they they rule of faith for you?
Did I not correct your source about a belief of Augustine's with which I disagree? You are the one citing sources you don't even agree with. Who is more desperate to remain in ignorance? Uh huh.
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Originally Posted by PL
Obviously the Canon did not exist yet.
Yes it did. I'm referring to the OT, not the NT.
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Originally Posted by PL
But they did have the scriptures and they did agree on all of them.
Sheer ignorance. I listed heresies above, and I'm not even including antinomianism, Manichaeism, Julianism, false prophets...
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Originally Posted by PL
This depends on exactly what you mean. But they did beleive faith was the agent by which men came to salvation and that all men were capable of having faith via free will.
And you have not addressed what I wrote to jbh regarding free will and the ECFs.
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Originally Posted by PL
They certainly did!
Lol. Even the apostles were combatting antinomianism, but apparently it didn't exist. Apparently, Marcion didn't exist. Silly me!
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Originally Posted by PL
Yes they did!
Really? So did Augustine or Pelagius have it? How do you know? Which side were Ambrose and Cyprian on? Who did the church vindicate? And yet who do you purport as the saint?
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Originally Posted by PL
You are amazing!
Thanks!
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Originally Posted by PL
But they Church was not infected by these things doctrinally.
Then why were so many letters written to so many disciples who we so confused and slipping into error? Have you ever read Augustine's Retractations? Short book, long list of heresies that men he knew were seduced into regarding as orthodox prior to rebuke.
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Originally Posted by PL
I saw this coming, which is why I already dealt with it in my last post. You seem to read what you want and ignore the rest. Go back and read again.
Quote me what you think I missed. I'll give you an example by quoting something you missed:
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Originally Posted by Knight
Wait wait wait. So when I say "all conceivable men" is not in Scripture, you blow a gasket, but you condemn Calvinists for being consistent in their appeal to context? Who is Jesus not praying for in John 17? All men without exception? Lol. Who does Jesus give life to in John 6:33? All men without exception? Are you a universalist? Hello? Do you see the necessity of taking into account what the context says?
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Originally Posted by PL
Wrong! Nowere in Leviticus does atonement indicate anything penal!
Is Leviticus the only book in your canon? You never addressed Isaiah 53:10. Why was it a problem for God to forebear the sins of OT saints if not because unpunished sins (which Christ was punished for, evincing the justice of God) scorns His glory (Romans 3:25-26, 9:11-15, Exodus 33:15-20)? Why did God forsake Christ on the cross?
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Originally Posted by PL
A provision is not a true provision if one cannot reviece it.
You equivocate, as I will show later.
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Originally Posted by PL
In a way you do deny it. But I think their is some agreement here as well. Which IS different from what most Calvinists will agrue! I know you want to beleive I am just stupid. But I know what I believe and what others have argued as their own beliefs. And this is why I state what I do. Some is on the assumption that you beleive as others. But then you satte differently and claim that all Calvinists believe that way.
Not all, but most. I did cite Daney, Hodge, Shedd, Piper, etc., right?
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Originally Posted by PL
You want to assume that if all have faith that this somehow equals universalism.
No, I deduced by exegesis that all for whom Christ died will freely be given all things, and faith would be a subset of all things (Romans 8:32). I also deduced that those for whom Jesus died therefore died with him, and that those who died with Him will be raised with Him (2 Corinthians 5:14, cf. Romans 6:8). Christ did not intend to save all; hence, not all will be saved.
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Originally Posted by PL
If election is true, then man cannot truly have provision for his sins. Provision is something that you CAN receice, NOT something you cannot receive.
And here is the equivocation to which I refer. Do you mean that all men cannot receive it because not all men can come to faith, or do you mean that even if all men came to faith they could not receive it? The latter is false, the former is what I believe. If the reprobate would come to Christ, they would receive the provision. They cannot come to Christ; therefore, they will not receive the provision. The onus is on you to make good on your claim one who cannot come has not provision. Counterfactually, however, your allegation is untenable, because I have already stated that men could receive the provision if the counterfactual were true that reprobates can come to Christ.
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Originally Posted by PL
Hunger comes from within a man, just as every man gets hungry physically on his own, every man can become hungry naturally in different times in life.
Source?
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Originally Posted by PL
I have given scripture!
Where? I'm not going to traipse about your website looking for them. Post it here. Each time that I ask for substantiation above, just quote a section of your site if needs be. But don't pretend as though you've provided justification from Scripture already, because you have not.
Lol. Like the humanity of Christ, Trinity, original sin, canon, justification by works... yeah, the Early Church was much more reliable than we are.
Even you are ignorant to Early Church history or you just use such to deceive yourself. These claims of yours are far later than what I am talking about. Everyhting I have used to show what the early Church taught in within the first 300 years - specifically the first 200 years. NONE of these doctrines you mention here were disputed within these time frames. It was after 300 AD that these things began to be a problem within the Churches. Heresies did always come in, but they did not remain. They were dealt with, as Paul did in his letters. If they were not then those Churches were rejected as a part of the true Church.
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This is why you need to change your criterion of truth from man's word to God's word. Stop focusing so much on the former as your pillar of truth.
If we were to remove Augustine and Calvin from history, no man would come to the so-called truth of Calvinism. You make think you would, but you do not realize how deep the roots are of this system, which are not Biblical in themselves. I do not stand on any system of theology or that which rose out of Catholic corruption, but that which came from the Apostles themselves. Then I need to stop looking at the former? The Bible is my only source of truth! The Early Church is only a historical evidence that confirms truth to a new level, but is not needed.
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What historical evidence? You have yet to show any of it! Moron!
This just shows that you do not read or at least do not understand what I am saying. You keep repeating the same things that I have answered, as if nothing was said at all. Then you constantly read into what I am saying and assume things falsely. You make my beliefs into something totally different than what I had said, and then call me a "moron" for what you assume I said. So who is the Moron? Your attitude is not worth a response. You are obviosly are too arogant to receive it anyway. There is absolutely NOTHING you have said that I cannot answer or give support for. But much is in books, articles, and other places I don't have time to retrieve. You ought to read Malcolms writings yourself to see his own claims, and actually read from my site on the early Church, and the early Church writings themselves. NOT later writings! But those within the first 300 years. But mostly within 200 years. You assume a lot you obviously do not know. Your pride and arrogance leads you.
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Sheer ignorance. I listed heresies above, and I'm not even including antinomianism, Manichaeism, Julianism, false prophets...
Heresies began with Simon the Sorcerer. This is recorded in history. Then with Valentinus, and then later with Marcion, Basalides, and MANY others. These heresies were well known as Gnostic groups outside of the true Church. Manichaeism was much later. These groups attempted to pull people out of the true Chruch and were successful with many. This WAS NOT something that took place within the true Church that changed their doctrines! Anything they did have enter into a Church was confronted and dealt with by the Apostles or other Churches. If a Church did not change for whatever reason, then they were listed amongstthe heretics. They WOULD NOT have been considered a Church along with the others that taught truth.
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Lol. Even the apostles were combatting antinomianism, but apparently it didn't exist. Apparently, Marcion didn't exist. Silly me!
Marcion did not exist during the times of the Apostles! He was an early 2nd century heretic. He was the first to boldly teach Antinomianism. This does not mean it did not exist before then. I believe it definately did! But it was confronted as heresy and was not a teaching of the Church, even if some were effected by it for a time. So yes, silly you!
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Is Leviticus the only book in your canon? You never addressed Isaiah 53:10. Why was it a problem for God to forebear the sins of OT saints if not because unpunished sins (which Christ was punished for, evincing the justice of God) scorns His glory (Romans 3:25-26, 9:11-15, Exodus 33:15-20)? Why did God forsake Christ on the cross?
Here we are again. Another thing I DID address! Isaiah 53:10
"Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand."
Did God come down and bruise Him personally? No! This speaks of God allowing it, as it was His will to provide atonement for men. Remember, God SENT His Son to the world - for this very purpose! So although it was indeed His will, He was not the one who actually did it. Jesus offered Himself. He was not God's offering to Himself. Do I need to post the MANY scriptures that state this? The fact that the Father was at work in it does not mean that He was the direct cause of it. It was the High Priest (Jesus in this case) that had to offer the sacrifice (Himself). Since Jesus offered Himself to this suffering, where then is the punishment by God?
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No, I deduced by exegesis that all for whom Christ died will freely be given all things, and faith would be a subset of all things (Romans 8:32). I also deduced that those for whom Jesus died therefore died with him, and that those who died with Him will be raised with Him (2 Corinthians 5:14, cf. Romans 6:8). Christ did not intend to save all; hence, not all will be saved.
Reading into scripture again.
2 Corinthians 5:14-15
14For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead:
This says Christ did die for all. Then it simply states that this proves that all were dead - since He would not need Him if they were not.
15And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.
He died for all, but "they which live" are not all! This is they which receive Him and repent. He does not need to go into detail on this fact. They already understand the simple gospel message. No sense in rehashing. The point here is only that all are dea and that those who come to Him by faith can no longer live for themselves. Very simple. Why wrestle with the scriptures?
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And here is the equivocation to which I refer. Do you mean that all men cannot receive it because not all men can come to faith, or do you mean that even if all men came to faith they could not receive it? The latter is false, the former is what I believe. If the reprobate would come to Christ, they would receive the provision. They cannot come to Christ; therefore, they will not receive the provision. The onus is on you to make good on your claim one who cannot come has not provision. Counterfactually, however, your allegation is untenable, because I have already stated that men could receive the provision if the counterfactual were true that reprobates can come to Christ.
You love to complicate things that are so simple. Men are not brain dead individuals. I have explained many times the process in life that brings men to a place of hunger, which then puts them in a position of making a decision - but only after hearing the gospel of grace. Faith is a seed that can be planted in any heart thru the gospel and testimony of Christians. Once the seed is planted thru these things, men can have faith. They have knowledge of the gospel, they have evidence in the Christians testimony, and they have the Holy Spirit to draw upon them once this process begins. What more do they need without a lasso around them to pull them in? God does not force men to salvation! He places them into a place of choice. To choose blessing of cursing. God draws upon what HE created within a man, but NOT irresistably, forcefully, or without free will.
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Where? I'm not going to traipse about your website looking for them. Post it here. Each time that I ask for substantiation above, just quote a section of your site if needs be. But don't pretend as though you've provided justification from Scripture already, because you have not.
I have given my web pages because they are actually not all that long or you can at least scroll down and easily find quotes and scriptures and bypass alot of commentary. This is easier that writing another book here. These posts are way too long as it is. If I were to post these things you want, then I would be rewriting what I already wrote. Sending a link simplifies it and saved room here on this forum. There is A LOT of info. If you do not want to go there than that is your choice. But don't say I cannot provide things when posts are so long. I have more important things to do than argue with an arogant prideful person who don't care about truth enough to listen to another view.
I will be dropping out soon, since I have my own forum back up again. I pray God's blessing upon you in all truth!!! Really! And yes, I pray the same for myself, always.
NONE of these doctrines you mention here were disputed within these time frames. It was after 300 AD that these things began to be a problem within the Churches.
Oh? Justification by works wasn't something an early church member like, say, Paul had to deal with? Docetism wasn't something someone like, say, John specifically rebuked?
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Originally Posted by PL
If we were to remove Augustine and Calvin from history, no man would come to the so-called truth of Calvinism.
You're assuming no one would read their Bibles... you know, a Christian's rule of faith? I never even heard of Calvin or read Augustine prior to accepting TULIP.
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Originally Posted by PL
The Bible is my only source of truth!
I am the only one appealing to it, so I beg your pardon if I'm skeptical.
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Originally Posted by PL
You keep repeating the same things that I have answered, as if nothing was said at all.
Where? Where have you said these things? Just do what I do whenever I think you have missed something: quote for me that which I missed. When you go with the "nuh uh" defense and don't show me what I'm missing, I'm inclined to think you're backing out.
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Originally Posted by PL
There is absolutely NOTHING you have said that I cannot answer or give support for.
Then why are you so selfish? Surely you have some Scripture? Surely you have some ECF writer who actually agrees with you? Surely you can do better than a throwaway passage of an obscure work of Theophilus which talks about man prior to the Fall and Revelation 22:17? Right?
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Originally Posted by PL
Heresies began with Simon the Sorcerer. This is recorded in history. Then with Valentinus, and then later with Marcion, Basalides, and MANY others. These heresies were well known as Gnostic groups outside of the true Church.
What of the heresies within the church? Galatians, Corinthians, Romans... are any of these books ringing a bell? Do you not consider the New Testament to have historical significance as well as spiritual?
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Originally Posted by PL
Marcion did not exist during the times of the Apostles! He was an early 2nd century heretic.
I didn't intend to imply otherwise. The fact remains: antinomianism occurred within the first 300 years of the early church.
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Originally Posted by PL
But it was confronted as heresy and was not a teaching of the Church, even if some were effected by it for a time.
So a "teaching of the church" is that which the church teaches... but only if it teaches it for an arbitrary amount of time?
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Originally Posted by PL
Here we are again. Another thing I DID address!
Where? Hello? Mr. Lyndon?
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Originally Posted by PL
Did God come down and bruise Him personally? No! This speaks of God allowing it, as it was His will to provide atonement for men.
He didn't merely "allow" it, He predestined it! Acts 4:27-28. Would you say it was not God who punished Israel merely because Assyria (for example) was the secondary cause with which God predestined to punish Israel? Really? Lol.
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Originally Posted by PL
Jesus offered Himself. He was not God's offering to Himself.
What does propitiation mean, Mr. Lyndon?
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Originally Posted by PL
Do I need to post the MANY scriptures that state this?
Do I still need to ask for you to post Scripture? Have you not yet gotten it through your head?
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Originally Posted by PL
The fact that the Father was at work in it does not mean that He was the direct cause of it.
The fact that He inspired the word which says He predestined it to happen, however, does.
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Originally Posted by PL
It was the High Priest (Jesus in this case) that had to offer the sacrifice (Himself). Since Jesus offered Himself to this suffering, where then is the punishment by God?
In His pleasure in bruising His Son who took on our sins! That's the point of Romans 3:25-26. God would have been unjust if He had forebeared OT saints sins without punishing them. Hence, He was shown to be just when Jesus became propitiation for their and our sins, because it was rather Jesus who was punished.
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Originally Posted by PL
This says Christ did die for all. Then it simply states that this proves that all were dead - since He would not need Him if they were not.
So you interpret "all" as "all [men without exception] rather than "all [men in Christ]"? Who does the love of Christ compel? Who is Paul writing to?
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Originally Posted by PL
He died for all, but "they which live" are not all!
What? How did you derive that from the text? By what reasoning did you use to show "they which live" are not "they which died with Christ"?
What does Romans 6:8 say?
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Originally Posted by PL
You love to complicate things that are so simple. Men are not brain dead individuals.
Never said that. You love to lie.
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Originally Posted by PL
I have explained many times the process in life that brings men to a place of hunger
Ad nauseam. But you have yet to show that this is biblical.
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Originally Posted by PL
They have knowledge of the gospel, they have evidence in the Christians testimony, and they have the Holy Spirit to draw upon them once this process begins.
That last one is an assumption. John 6 and 10 indicate otherwise, as I have said. Also, not everyone has heard the gospel. Are you an inclusivist?
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Originally Posted by PL
God does not force men to salvation! He places them into a place of choice. To choose blessing of cursing. God draws upon what HE created within a man, but NOT irresistably, forcefully, or without free will.
Blah blah blah. You can't propagandize me, I see through your baseless teaching. You really feel bold enough to tell me that a man in the flesh can submit to and please God?
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Originally Posted by PL
I have given my web pages because they are actually not all that long or you can at least scroll down and easily find quotes and scriptures and bypass alot of commentary.
I went through one of your links, I'd rather not be asked to do it again. Just post whatever thoughts you have here. Paste it from your website if you like. I don't care. Just start posting something with substance, something with exegesis. No more stalling, please.
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