1 Kings 10:28 interesting variation
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There is disagreement among the early English Bibles concerning how to translate a Hebrew word at 1 Kings 10:28. This example and others demonstrate how that godly translators as they are guided by the Holy Spirit in their translating of the same inspired words in the original languages can differ or even disagree in their renderings. William Tyndale, Miles Coverdale, and John Rogers understood this Hebrew word to be referring to a geographical place. Thus, three good Bibles on the KJV-only view's line have "from Keva" at 1 Kings 10:28 while the KJV has "linen yarn."
What is the basis for this variation in translating?
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